Almost confusing... 2 = 1? I think not!
My apologies to those out there who have already seen this confusing bit o' math trickery:
The resolution to this little conundrum? If you want to know, you'll have to click here for a related discussion. In a way, the above algebra is actually a proof of why division-by-zero is undefined!
Comments
Lame. Seriously.
Posted by: Victor | July 22, 2010 8:25 AM
Wrong. At one point, your math turns this equation:
a^2 - b^2 = ab - b^2
in this equation:
(a+b)(a-b) = b(a-b)
and that is wrong.
(a+b)(a-b) turns into a^2 - 2ab - b^2.
All your math becomes invalid by this. There went your 'proof'.
Posted by: Enzo | August 6, 2010 1:35 PM
b(a-b) doesn't simplify to "b" if a=b. It simplifies to 0. In addition to the other bad math already pointed out.
Posted by: Darrell | September 9, 2010 4:33 PM
Enzo, you are mistaken. As a=b, the relationship you attempt to criticize holds. a^2 -2ab-b^2 DOES = b(a-b) if a=b.
By setting a=b, you get a^2=ab so ab-2ab-b^2=-ab-b^2=b(a-b).
The only problem with the "proof" is that (a-b)=0 by definition so you can't divide by it. Check yo math before looking like an idiot.
Posted by: Three Sigma | September 15, 2010 12:08 PM
@Victor:
(a+b)(a-b) does NOT equal to a^2 - 2ab -b^2
(a+b)(a-b) = a^2 - ab + ab - b^2 = a^2 - b^2
The reason this fails is because you divide by (a-b),
which in fact = 0
if
a = b | -b
a - b = 0
Posted by: Anders | October 6, 2010 11:21 AM
I have no idea what is going on, but it seems you are critisising peoples formulae for dividing by zero because they had to divide by zero.
Posted by: h | October 11, 2010 4:57 PM
you fail at maths.
(a-b)(a+b)is a*a-b*b
since the remaining would be
ab-ab.
YOUR maths fail.
also,
(a+b)(a+b) is a*a + 2ab + b*b
while
(a-b)(a-b) is a*a + -b*-b (hence plus)+a*-b +a*-b
that is a*a+ b*b -2ab
Posted by: maths | May 15, 2011 9:40 AM
No more s***. All posts of this qualtiy from now on
Posted by: Lacey | June 14, 2011 6:22 AM
The best mathematicians were only able to ALMOST prove that 1 is somewhere in the ballpark of 2...FAIL!
Posted by: Paul Frumkin | September 6, 2011 10:21 PM
...Do people commenting not realise that the maths here is SUPPOSED to be flawed? The whole point is to present something that is seeming logical (and for the most part the maths is correct), but which we ultimately know to be false. We all know that 1 does not equal 2, and yet this seems to be perfectly logical algebraic proof that 1 does indeed equal two. The issue is that some part of the logic is only seemingly true but is, in fact, false (and that is that at one point in the maths we divide by zero which is impossible)
This is a PARADOX - hopefully the rest of you realise that now and can move past your pathetic little "I'm better at maths than you" pissing contest.
Posted by: Shaun | December 6, 2011 11:51 AM
whooo! go shaun!
Posted by: person | December 29, 2011 6:15 PM
h the "proof" is that (a-b)=0 by definition so you can't divide by it. Check yo math before looking like an idio
Posted by: UGG Australia Sale | January 3, 2012 11:47 PM
This is a PARADOX - hopefully the rest of you realise that now and can move past your pathetic little "I'm better at maths than you" pissing contest.
Posted by: Hermes Birkin Bag | January 10, 2012 1:57 PM